I watched the court video of the cross-examination of a 20-something psychologist who was in ‘communication’ with the defendant and prescribed her psychotic drugs (SSRIs) for he condition without ever meeting her. On top of the psychotic drugs (also SSRIs) which the defendant was already taking.
The increased risk of violence from the prescription of SSRIs is a known outcome:
https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC7347007/
which is, of course, denied by the medical “profession”, whose livelihood depends on prescribing drugs at random on the basis of a few conversations, regardless of how many drugs the patient is already on:
https://www.psychiatrictimes.com/view/no-antidepressants-do-not-provoke-mass-shootings
From personal observations on the reporting of mass shootings, about half refer to the shooters being on anti-depressant medications, sometimes specified as SSRIs. Even if the other half weren’t (articles never say that they weren’t medicated) 50% of shooters on meds is a vast over-representation of medicated people in the cohort.
So for me the question is, is it the psychologists who were responsible for tipping her over the edge with their prescriptions of mind-altering drugs, or was she in full control of her mental processes when she killed them?